Is the Bible Infallible, Inerrant, and Verbally Inspired?

If the New Testament is verbally inspired why are there two versions of the Lord's Prayer? Examine the two versions and notice the differences then ask the question: If the prayers were dictated to the writers why aren't they exactly the same?

9After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name.
10Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.
11Give us this day our daily bread.
12And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.
13And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen.
Luke 11:2-4 (King James Version)

2And he said unto them, When ye pray, say, Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done, as in heaven, so in earth.
3Give us day by day our daily bread.
4And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil.

Matthew's version has, "For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen." Luke's version does not have this. This is a minor thing, but if the scriptures were dictated they would be exactly the same.